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JQXVN's avatar

Can you really derive the magnitude of the medication-only effect by subtracting the effect size of the placebo arm? Seems possible the effects of psychological expectation, social treatment and role, and pharmacology are not independently additive. You'd have to have something like a trial of people running placebo-controlled experiments at home to figure this out, but it seems very possible to me that the pharmacology alone could knock out some of the same 'depression points' that are covered by being attended to weekly by a kindly psychiatrist etc. I forget what this is called statistically but it's like the opposite of gestalt, the whole is less than the sum of its parts.

Kieran Owens's avatar

Non-pharmacological factors are clearly important in MDD treatment response. However, I don’t think your 80/20 interpretation follows from the small magnitude of trial-level mean differences. In particular I think that you’re making an implicit assumption of homogeneity of response.

The clearest counterargument actually comes from the Stone et al (2022) IPD meta-analysis that you cite and include a figure from at the top of your post. The distributions of HAMD changes in the figure are clearly not unimodal. Indeed, it is visually apparent that large improvements are more probable in the drug than the placebo group. Stone et al and other researchers have modelled this as a tri- (or elsewhere bi-) modal distribution.

Quoting Stone et al directly:

"Those treated with drug were more likely to show a Large response (24.5% v 9.6% with placebo), however, and less likely to have a Minimal response (12.2% v 21.5%). Thus the observed advantage of antidepressants over placebo is best understood as affecting a minority of patients as either an increase in the likelihood of a Large response or a decrease in the likelihood of a Minimal response."

In short, and to quote a similar study by Thase et al (2011, BrJPsych):“small mean differences obscure large and clinically meaningful responses for a subgroup of people with depression.” This is why, as a clinician, I am generally more interested in the NNT for response and remission.

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